Subject: Re: Native American Counties|
From: Randall W Fields
Date: July 14, 1998
I would like to understand the reason for saying that there were no full-blooded indians in 1800. I have heard this before but have never heard proof. Can it actually be proven that there were no full-blooded indians in the 1800's and back that statement up with proof. Had all the native americans been given a dose of european blood? This is just a curiousity to me actually. Everyone must realize that there is no such thing as a full-bloodeds Italian, or full-blooded Spanish, or full-blooded anything else. Somewhere back in time all nationalities were given a dose of some other blood line. But I would like to hear what proof there is about the native americans as far as the blood being mixed after the europeans came over. One point to this is that when the trail of tears occurred the people removed to those reservations would have been descendants of european immigrants. So, just out of curiousity how do you prove that there were no full-blooded Native Americnas in the 1800's. Randall Fields On Tue, 14 Jul 1998 02:31:08 -0500 (CDT) " Michael.W.Lowe "
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